I am sure I don't understand all this, and I apologize if this has already been stated, but if the big concern from the NBA is the fact that the KG trade is connected to, contingent upon, the Doc deal, then doesn't trading KG first (requiring a waive of his no-trade) effectively show that it is not contingent?
In other words, if KG agrees to the trade before Doc leaves he is stating "I am going to LA regardless of what happens with Doc", since there would be no turning back. If it happens first, by definition the KG trade would not be contingent on Doc going to LA.
I can't see there being a rule against KG hoping Doc ends up there, or even leaving with faith that the 2 sides will try to get it done. I can't see what is wrong with that. Seems transparent and fair.