http://espn.go.com/espn/otl/story/_/id/10852199/challenge-donald-sterling
"Q: Sterling is notoriously litigious. Can he go to court to stop Silver from punishing him?
A: Not effectively. When Silver issues his punishment to Sterling, the decision is final. The constitution provides in Paragraph 24(m) that a commissioner's decision shall be "final, binding, and conclusive" and shall be as final as an award of arbitration. It is almost impossible to find a judge in the United States judicial system who would set aside an award of arbitration. Sterling can file a lawsuit, but he would face a humiliating defeat early in the process. There is no antitrust theory or principle that would help him against Silver and the NBA. He could claim an antitrust violation, for example, if he were trying to move his team to a different market. But under the terms of the NBA constitution, he has no chance to succeed in litigation over punishment."
This is not accurate. He could claim that Silver abused his discretion, and that the commissioner's decision was unfair. ...to me, it is a little unfair. Because Sterling had a private phone call with his girlfriend that she (as I understand California law) illegally leaked, he should lose the team? So if you have a private conversation with a friend of yours and say something negative about gay people, and your friend, angry because you are suing him, sends it to your boss - you ought to get fired? It's a histrionic reaction in a "gotcha" culture.
How is a quote from the NBA constitution not accurate?
Yes, Sterling can always make any claim such as 'abuse of discretion' - but that almost never wins an overrule of an arbitration decision. The act of agreeing to arbitration (and implicitly, the contracts binding the owners, teams, staffs and players in the NBA all are granting the commissioner final arbitration power) is basically surrendering your right to second guess the outcome.
The only traction is if it (the decision) is out of the bounds of NBA-related business. But Silver can very easily show that Sterling's behavior has been detrimental for the business of the NBA because of the many sponsorships that have been put at risk due to his behavior.
I would not be surprised if there is an explicit 'behavior detrimental to the league' clause somewhere in their constitution.
I don't think it is "almost impossible" that a District Court Judge would decline to confirm the award of Silver, as arbitrator, in this circumstance. While I'm sure the usual group of politically correct internet-know-it-alls will jump down my throat for DARING to suggest that forcing someone to sell a gigantic asset for having a private telephone conversation is HORRIBLE and makes me (by association) a RACIST - I don't think it's a foregone conclusion that all this hysteria is justice.
I personally do not like Donald Sterling. But I do not think that the law necessarily supports stripping anyone of anything because of his personal views. You raise an interesting, and very valid, point about the "conduct detrimental to the league" clause - which I too think exists. However, we have not established that the conduct is, indeed, detrimental to the league. Those sponsorships belong to Sterling - not the other owners. Silver does not really have any evidence yet that Sterling's comments damaged league revenues.
It is an interesting question, what should happen - but it is not a foregone conclusion.
I want to make clear: I do not agree with Sterling's views. I do not condone those opinions. I am speaking solely on the issue of the league's response to the phone calls.
You are missing - because you want to, apparently - a vital legal point explained here before that renders your entire pro-Sterling argument null and void:
So I'll try again: Courts have upheld for decades the concept of "implied consent," which is the precise concept that dooms Sterling in any legal challenge he might mount.
The NBA constitution is clear: Silver has broad powers as an aribtrator, and the courts have again for decades disdained overruling the findings of an arbitrator. Fact, not what I want to believe.
Further, the constitution contains a clause requiring a three-fourths vote of the ownership to remove an owner. And let's be honest here: Is any owner going to vote no? No. Fact, not what I want to believe.
Here's the key: Sterling, by operating under the current constitution, has given his implied consent to its provisions. So, by running the Clippers he has consented legally to be governed by the very provisions that will be used successfully, eventually, in court to force him to sell.
Sterling is not the sole owner of a business; rather, he is a franchise holder in an association he is a voluntary member in, and in the real business world, franchises get revoked all the time. Fact, not what I want to believe
Sterling can sue, sue sue - and I hope he does, because the longer he remains with title to the Clippers, the greater the talent exodus will be from his club at a perfect time for the Celtics - but those of you who persist in claiming he's been legally wronged are wasting your time.
The league has done its homework. The more he sues, the more he will lose in court. Fact.
There's an awful lot of "Because I don't like it, it cannot be so" flawed logic in this thread. I imagine Sterling feels that way. But the law doesn't work that way.
NCE, thank you and others for bringing some thoughtful and informed insights into the discussion. i have learned quite a bit and it is different from what i originally thought. learning is a good thing.

a few questions that may muddy the points above but i ask other posters to help clarify things for me:
1. sterling jointly owns the clippers with his wife. can she be forced to sell if she did no wrong? or, could donald sterling simply sign over his ownership to his wife? if he does so, does this pull the rug out from under the NBA?
2. i believe, and could be wrong, that the power granted to the owners under the NBA contract is to terminate a franchise, not force a sale. that is, the clippers can be nuked out of existence, but not forcibly sold. if so, then things are much more complicated than we may think and this might play out for a long time.
3. sterling has consented to follow nba rules, but does he still not own the clipper team even if the nba dissolves that NBA franchise? the logo? the rights to the arena? etc.? that is, the NBA franchise may have disappeared, but those elements of ownership that belong to sterling would continue, no? if so, then could this block the NBA effectively from simply waving their magic wand and creating a new franchise in LA?
i guess what i am saying in a rather poor manner is that none of this seems cut and dry and silver's actions, while enormously popular, leaves a LOT of questions and murky details unaddressed. in essence, has the league really done enough homework in such a short period of time? at present, i am not convinced one way or the other.
4. if #2 is correct and the clippers are voted into oblivion, what happens to the players contracts? to whom do they owe service? are they dispersed throughout the other teams via some mechanism? to the highest bidder as free agents? realistically, can all of this be done well and correctly before next season?
5. will the NBA player's union resist the dissolution of 15 jobs and seek an alternative resolution to this crap heap? even if the clippers players are drafted into other teams, those teams will of necessity need to jettison an equal number of current players to make room for the new ex-clippers. after all, the total number of player slots available is reduced by 15 and simply "making a brand new franchise" is not that easy to do.
so, lots of questions but not much in the way of insight by me. typical.
