The Lakers own tiebreaker vs. Boston?

[rocknrollforyoursoul]

This according to an ESPN article, but I don't know why -- they split the season series 1-1, so what's the next tiebreaker?

[Roy H.]

Record against the opposing conference.  The Lakers did better against the East than we did against the West.

[rocknrollforyoursoul]

Thank you, Roy. TP.

[Assassin70]

All we need to do is win out and let the chips fall.  If we dont lose again in the reg season I think we will be good.  Lakers will lose to OKC or SA thye wont lose to both though so we have to win out.

[jambr380]

I know Roy has done the research on this and it has been discussed in other threads, but during the first half of the Orlando-Chicago game, the announcers said that if the Spurs and Bulls tie for the best record in the NBA and meet in the finals, they will do a random draw for who gets homecourt advantage. They also said this was unprecedented.

I guess I just don't understand why they would do this for the top teams in their respective conferences, but not for other teams with the same circumstance. Can someone explain?

[indeedproceed]

I know Roy has done the research on this and it has been discussed in other threads, but during the first half of the Orlando-Chicago game, the announcers said that if the Spurs and Bulls tie for the best record in the NBA and meet in the finals, they will do a random draw for who gets homecourt advantage. They also said this was unprecedented.

I guess I just don't understand why they would do this for the top teams in their respective conferences, but not for other teams with the same circumstance. Can someone explain?

I imagine its because they have the same record vs opposing conference teams?

EDIT: Yup.

http://www.basketball-reference.com/leagues/NBA_2011_standings.html

[jambr380]

I know Roy has done the research on this and it has been discussed in other threads, but during the first half of the Orlando-Chicago game, the announcers said that if the Spurs and Bulls tie for the best record in the NBA and meet in the finals, they will do a random draw for who gets homecourt advantage. They also said this was unprecedented.

I guess I just don't understand why they would do this for the top teams in their respective conferences, but not for other teams with the same circumstance. Can someone explain?

I imagine its because they have the same record vs opposing conference teams?

EDIT: Yup.

http://www.basketball-reference.com/leagues/NBA_2011_standings.html

Thanks IP - tp. I thought of that before I left the house, but then didn't look it up when I got home. It's a good thing I only comment around here and don't create threads; I would have a lot of people correcting my mistakes.

[indeedproceed]

I know Roy has done the research on this and it has been discussed in other threads, but during the first half of the Orlando-Chicago game, the announcers said that if the Spurs and Bulls tie for the best record in the NBA and meet in the finals, they will do a random draw for who gets homecourt advantage. They also said this was unprecedented.

I guess I just don't understand why they would do this for the top teams in their respective conferences, but not for other teams with the same circumstance. Can someone explain?

I imagine its because they have the same record vs opposing conference teams?

EDIT: Yup.

http://www.basketball-reference.com/leagues/NBA_2011_standings.html

Thanks IP - tp. I thought of that before I left the house, but then didn't look it up when I got home. It's a good thing I only comment around here and don't create threads; I would have a lot of people correcting my mistakes.

If it makes you feel better, I wrote an article about playoff seeding a few days ago and even I needed to look it up.

[jambr380]

I know Roy has done the research on this and it has been discussed in other threads, but during the first half of the Orlando-Chicago game, the announcers said that if the Spurs and Bulls tie for the best record in the NBA and meet in the finals, they will do a random draw for who gets homecourt advantage. They also said this was unprecedented.

I guess I just don't understand why they would do this for the top teams in their respective conferences, but not for other teams with the same circumstance. Can someone explain?

I imagine its because they have the same record vs opposing conference teams?

EDIT: Yup.

http://www.basketball-reference.com/leagues/NBA_2011_standings.html

Thanks IP - tp. I thought of that before I left the house, but then didn't look it up when I got home. It's a good thing I only comment around here and don't create threads; I would have a lot of people correcting my mistakes.

If it makes you feel better, I wrote an article about playoff seeding a few days ago and even I needed to look it up.

Haha, I thought I had become educated on the subject and then the announcers threw this curveball. I guess they should have explained why...Hopefully it doesn't become an issue [and we beat them outright].