There is zero evidence because there is zero evidence, I don't know how to explain it better. "The balls were irregular at halftime therefore the Patriots tampered with them" is not evidence, it is conjecture.
Of course it's evidence.
Refs check the balls for both teams. Both comply. Pats are in charge of Patriots balls afterwards; Colts are in control of Colts balls. At halftime, refs check the balls of both teams. Colts still comply, Patriots 90%+ not in compliance, to a significant degree.
Is there any other reasonable explanation? Circumstantial evidence is evidence, and it all points at the Pats.
Totally agree Roy. That being said, what should the punishment now be??
I'm actually with Koz on this even though I think it's highly plausible that Belichick messed with the balls (and I'm a Pats fan).
What evidence is there? Refs check the balls before the game... they checked out. But if they provide the balls right before game time (maybe a very short window) there isn't enough time to leak the balls after they were checked... and a ball boy obviously isn't on the sideline with cameras blaring during the game letting out air...
That means the balls were messed with before the game... meaning the refs were too incompetent to catch it, meaning even if Belichick and the Pats messed with the balls the NFL A. cannot prove it and B. would have to admit their own employees screwed this up which looks very very bad for them.
I'm sure if the officials had caught it they would have told Bill "you can't do this fix it" and it would have been a non story. Actually the story would be "Belichick tries to gain every advantage, duh." Who knows maybe the Pats have done this before every game and the refs have never caught it (and wouldn't have this time)
There really is no way to prove it