Here's a question on the malicious destruction of property (not trying to justify it, just thinking about a possibility).
I like to think if I was living with a successful entertainer, who makes millions of dollars, that I would have the very latest smartphone, (iphone 5, galaxy s4, whatever floats your boat) courtesy of my significant other. I also like to think that they’d take care of the bill, maybe add me as an additional line on their plan, or just pay my bill for me.
So hypothetically, if Jared bought the phone and/or was paying the bill, does that change anything legally? You can’t be charged for maliciously destroying your own property right? But even if he bought it and was paying the bill, would it be considered a gift to her, and therefore hers? Where’s the line here?
Now again hypothetically, say Jared actually smashed more than the phone, he also smashed the door, the dresser, the mirror, the pictures on the wall, etc., destroyed the whole bedroom. If he paid for all of it, does that matter? Is that only considered hers too if they’re married? Or do you have to be living together for a certain period of time, like would it matter if she moved in only last month vs. more than a year ago, or if she moved into his place that he already had furnished, or they moved into the place together with both names on the lease and decorated together? Of course I’m sure that’s the way a lot of domestic violence cases go down. Man tells woman she’s nothing, has nothing, everything is his because he bought it, it his and not hers and so proceeds to destroy it, etc. (Though that scenario plays out a little different in my head if I perceive the woman as a stay at home mom vs. a gold digger vs. a working professional, etc.).
Just wondering where the line is drawn on the "malicious destruction of property" part, not the assault/battery or witness intimidation part. Wondering how the law is interpreted here, not talking about the moral/ethical nature of the acts.