Author Topic: With Identical Records, Who Gets Home-court : C's or Lakers?  (Read 10943 times)

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Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #30 on: April 06, 2011, 04:14:22 PM »

Offline j804

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So what is it who gets HCA if we are tied?

everybody is quoting contradicting sources LOL
"7ft PG. Rondo leaves and GUESS WHAT? We got a BIGGER point guard!"-Tommy on Olynyk


Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #31 on: April 06, 2011, 04:16:17 PM »

Offline fairweatherfan

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So what is it who gets HCA if we are tied?

everybody is quoting contradicting sources LOL

Lakers get it. 

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #32 on: April 06, 2011, 04:27:07 PM »

Offline j804

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So what is it who gets HCA if we are tied?

everybody is quoting contradicting sources LOL

Lakers get it. 
Well that's too bad just gotta keep our foot on the gas and hope for the best.
"7ft PG. Rondo leaves and GUESS WHAT? We got a BIGGER point guard!"-Tommy on Olynyk


Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #33 on: April 06, 2011, 04:42:10 PM »

Offline CelticG1

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Yeah I don't see how that makes sense much sense.

Why in the conference standings with a tie break would be who has the best divisional record? Shouldn't it be who has a better record against the other respective division. Seems like an inconsistent method if thats the case

That's not the case.  They only use divisional record if you are in the same division.  Otherwise, it goes to conference record.  

So, if the Knicks and 76ers are tied, they would go to Divisional record, but not if the C's and Bulls are tied.  

Yeah that makes sense then I guess. Maybe I'm thinking of football. Or maybe my heads just turned around a bunch over this and I have no idea whats going on

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #34 on: April 06, 2011, 04:44:00 PM »

Offline CelticG1

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I'm trying to think of a reason for why this is a bad way to determine the tie break and I just can't  :'(

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #35 on: April 06, 2011, 04:46:42 PM »

Offline fairweatherfan

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I'm trying to think of a reason for why this is a bad way to determine the tie break and I just can't  :'(

The correct answer is "because it benefits the Lakers"   ;)

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #36 on: April 06, 2011, 05:52:29 PM »

Offline Yvette

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If I were the NBA, I would use the quotient system on both teams' series this season...

???

Well, let just do the rock, paper, scissors as Kevin Mchale suggested....

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #37 on: April 06, 2011, 06:11:03 PM »

Offline Yogi

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I'm trying to think of a reason for why this is a bad way to determine the tie break and I just can't  :'(
If the argument that traveling west is more difficult because you lose time than traveling east when you gain time is valid, then this method of tie-break inherently favors the western conference team. 
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Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #38 on: April 06, 2011, 06:59:13 PM »

Offline JSD

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The Lakers.  Apparently home court for the Finals is determined by the teams' records against the opposing conference (us against the West, them against the East).

Do you have a link for this?  NBA.com doesn't specify that on their playoff page.

Here's a link.

http://lakers.ocregister.com/2011/03/23/lakers-own-tiebreaker-vs-celtics-likely-not-bulls/51343/

Also, for historical evidence, back in the 2001 Finals, when the teams had identical records, LA got home court because their winning percentage against the East (.733) was better than Philly's against the West (.571).  If it had gone by each team's record against their own conference, Philly would have gotten home court (.741 vs. .653).

Darn. I missed this... That stinks. At least the Lakers won't be in the Finals this year.