Author Topic: With Identical Records, Who Gets Home-court : C's or Lakers?  (Read 10144 times)

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With Identical Records, Who Gets Home-court : C's or Lakers?
« on: April 06, 2011, 01:16:10 PM »

Offline KungPoweChicken

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This is a possibility. In the regular season they split their games. Who would get home court, and why? Anyone know if there has ever been an NBA finals where teams finished with identical regular season records?
« Last Edit: April 06, 2011, 07:21:53 PM by Redz »

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #1 on: April 06, 2011, 01:17:57 PM »

Offline Rondo9dunx

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hah, I almost started this thread last night, curious to know the answer myself...
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Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #2 on: April 06, 2011, 01:18:03 PM »

Offline Roy H.

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The Lakers.  Apparently home court for the Finals is determined by the teams' records against the opposing conference (us against the West, them against the East).


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Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #3 on: April 06, 2011, 01:18:26 PM »

Offline fairweatherfan

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This is a possibility. In the regular season they split their games. Who would get home court, and why? Anyone know if there has ever been an NBA finals where teams finished with identical regular season records?

There's some controversy over this - check the Homecourt Thread for more details.  Basically every record of the rules I can find says its record against your own conference, but there are several articles indicating that for teams in different conferences it's record against OTHER conference (Lakers have clinched that one).

The last Finals with identical records was Philly + the Lakers in 01, when each team was 56-26. 

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #4 on: April 06, 2011, 01:19:14 PM »

Offline Chris

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C's.  If they are tied, the tie-breaker will be conference records, and the C's already have a 1 game lead on the Lakers in that area, and since both teams only have in-conference games left, the C's will win that tie-breaker if they can end the season tied with the Lakers.

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #5 on: April 06, 2011, 01:19:28 PM »

Offline KungPoweChicken

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The Lakers.  Apparently home court for the Finals is determined by the teams' records against the opposing conference (us against the West, them against the East).


Wow. That stinks. I was hoping it would be decided some other way. But I guess rules are rules.

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #6 on: April 06, 2011, 01:21:03 PM »

Offline Chris

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The Lakers.  Apparently home court for the Finals is determined by the teams' records against the opposing conference (us against the West, them against the East).

Do you have a link for this?  NBA.com doesn't specify that on their playoff page.

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #7 on: April 06, 2011, 01:27:16 PM »

Offline indeedproceed

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The Lakers.  Apparently home court for the Finals is determined by the teams' records against the opposing conference (us against the West, them against the East).

This one says own conference:

http://www.nba.com/2010/news/features/art_garcia/04/03/tiebreakers/

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Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #8 on: April 06, 2011, 01:30:05 PM »

Offline Roy H.

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The Lakers.  Apparently home court for the Finals is determined by the teams' records against the opposing conference (us against the West, them against the East).

Do you have a link for this?  NBA.com doesn't specify that on their playoff page.

Here's a link.

http://lakers.ocregister.com/2011/03/23/lakers-own-tiebreaker-vs-celtics-likely-not-bulls/51343/

Also, for historical evidence, back in the 2001 Finals, when the teams had identical records, LA got home court because their winning percentage against the East (.733) was better than Philly's against the West (.571).  If it had gone by each team's record against their own conference, Philly would have gotten home court (.741 vs. .653).


I'M THE SILVERBACK GORILLA IN THIS MOTHER——— AND DON'T NONE OF YA'LL EVER FORGET IT!@ 34 minutes

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #9 on: April 06, 2011, 01:36:03 PM »

Offline Green Hell

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That's one controversy I really don't want to have to be put through on our way to 18. I can already here Lakers fans and the media now if that is what it came to and things broke our way. If things broke their way, imagine how we'd feel!

I hope we can just beat them outright and secure HCA over them with a better record outright. It might realistically come down to the last game of the season at this point. If the Lakers start to slide even a little bit and our guys can get their butts in gear... Wow
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Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #10 on: April 06, 2011, 02:15:03 PM »

Offline heitingas

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(3) Better winning percentage against teams in own conference.

Celtics .745
Lakers  .723

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #11 on: April 06, 2011, 02:26:36 PM »

Offline JSD

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(3) Better winning percentage against teams in own conference.

Celtics .745
Lakers  .723

Sweet.

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #12 on: April 06, 2011, 02:48:04 PM »

Offline Green Hell

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But precedent suggests its "better record against opposing conference" in which case the Lakers have that clinched. The league has never given the Celtics a break before, do you actually think $tern would side with us over the Lakers?
Never stop believing baby~

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #13 on: April 06, 2011, 02:49:08 PM »

Offline Yvette

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If I were the NBA, I would use the quotient system on both teams' series this season...

Re: With indentical records, who gets home-court : C's or Lakers?
« Reply #14 on: April 06, 2011, 02:53:55 PM »

Offline RMO

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But precedent suggests its "better record against opposing conference" in which case the Lakers have that clinched. The league has never given the Celtics a break before, do you actually think $tern would side with us over the Lakers?

Did this rule change I wonder since 2001?  I agree that precedent shows this to be the way but EVERYWHERE I've read (including the NBA's website) says it would be the team with the better record against their own conference opponents.